Board has been talking about voting in amendments to by-laws, which they're entitled to do, but there's disagreement over whether the suggested amendments comply with existing laws.
First proposed amendment is to deny any shareholder the right to sit on the board if his/her apartment has been listed for sale (even if he/she is still living in the apartment).
Second proposed amendment is to permit only one board director who, although being a shareholder, does not have his/her apartment in the building as his/her primary address.
It's being argued that each of these is unlawfully depriving a shareholder of the right to sit on the board. And tat a shareholder has a right to protect his/her investment by participating in the board (the decision-making body) regardless of where he/she lives or how long he/she intends to live there - the key element being ownership, not place of residence or length of time in residence. This argument concludes that if the shareholders at large aren't happy electing someone who owns here and lives elsewhere, they'll say so with their votes. At the same time, such an amendment might deprive other shareholders of the board representation they want for what might be considered irrelevant reasons.
These arguments have convinced some, but not most of the board. Our first concern is - would these amendments be legal.
Anyone have any insights?
Has anyone gone through the process of charging a Board member for misconduct? What is entailed to do so?
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I realize that the majority of house rules specify that coop apartments must have carpeting/padding that covers 80% of the apartment with the exception of kitchens, bathrooms, foyers, etc.
I'd like to know if anyone would share their process for effectively enforcing the rule, especially for new shareholders? Are any boards inspecting the unit(s) prior to the new owners moving in, provided it's specified in the house rules and proprietary lease? Is there a legal issue in requiring an inspection?
Any decent Managements that anyone can offer? Some of us are stuck with Managements that show favors to a certain few, anyone else have this problem?
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Would love some feedback about the following: we have a board sales package for review. In the contract of sale the owner and purchaser made an agreement which allows the seller to stay in the cooperative up to three months after the sale. Our building has a sublet policy and sublet fees. The seller states in the agreement with the purchaser the seller would simply continue paying maintenance.
As a board member my strong thoughts are that this sounds like a sublet and would first need board approval and fees would apply. The contract of sale agreement must follow building rules and this agreement shoukd be reviewed by coop attorney. Furthermore, once the transfer is done maintenance must be paid by the new owners. The building simply cannot accept seller checks after sale.
While boards need to have some flexibility and fairness, a sale is a sale and our PL and building rules trump all else.
Thoughts?
What if a transfer of shares will occur just round the April 12th deadline of residency - how to declare this ? - the prior owners are in another state but the new owner will be in NYC.
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How does the STAR exemption program is distributed as a credit to owners of co-op?
I mean in which month residents should get that credit on their maintenance payment?
NYC Finance says that owner of co-op must get that credit by the end of the tax year, June 30th.
How does it work your co-op’s?
How does the STAR exemption program is distributed as a credit to owners of co-op?
I mean in which month residents should get that credit on their maintenance payment?
NYC Finance says that owner of co-op must get that credit by the end of the tax year, June 30th.
How does it work your co-op’s?
Since the City apparently uses the sponsor rents to help put a market value on coop's, would there be any possibility of a split taxation calculation passing the state legislature? The idea would be to tax the coop shares as one entity and the sponsors unsold shares as another.
This would attribute the coop entity a % of the annual coop expenses and income based on shares for taxation purposes as a residential property akin to a 1, 2 or 3 family home, and the sponsors unsold shares as a for-profit apartment entity with the remaining % of the annual expenses and income based on the unsold shares, but also including the rents and sponsor management costs as a separate entity.
A higher taxation rate might encourage the sponsors to 'complete the conversion', an issue which affects many coop's.
After reading today's NYTimes article about abatements and how trust fund purchasers may not qualify for them, is there any other potential dangers that could effect qualifying shareholders? Should Board's simply not allow "trusts"?
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Three issues here: First - I don't think you have the right to create two classes of shareholders by creating an artificial division between resident and non-resident shareholders. That would be the equivalent of creating two separate classes of stock, which I am sure wasn't done as part of your offering plan. Therefore, they are not two different classes of stock. If it is an issue it should be decided by voting at elections. Let people make their case for representation. Some of your best, most qualified, or willing shareholders might not be in residence. Second: the rewriting and creation of new Bylaws - all bylaws I have ever heard of require a 2/3 vote of all shares, and some even require a 2/3 vote count both on the shares and # of units participating, to achieve a change to the bylaws. I believe that the Board can only propose and write if they care to, though any shareholder in good standing can initiate the process, but not cause a change. A special meeting has to be called and held for the vote, for that specific pre-notified purpose, and the vote meeting needs to be held within 30 days of the meeting notice to all shareholders. The rationale by some Lawyers claiming the standard Corporation Board practice allows for the re-writing of Bylaws at will by the Board (and if the shareholders don't approve they can always vote it down later) is in direct conflict with the approved Bylaw revision process language by the Attorney General's office when approving the Offering plan. Why would there be a 2/3 Rule if it could be at Board will? I think it's specious reasoning, but I am not a Lawyer. There is a third issue that some Bylaws only actually require that the Board President has to be a shareholder and you can have non-shareholder members of the Board of Directors. Just to keep it interesting...
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